MCQ LIFE SCIECE PRACTICE SET 04.07.2021

 

1.A potent inhibitor of protein synthesis that acts as an analogue of aminoacyl t-RNA is

a) Mitomycin C           

b) Streptomycin          

c) Rifampicin              

d) Puromycin


2. Translation results in a product known as

a) Protein                     

b) t-RNA                     

c) mRNA                    

d) DNA

3. How many different codons are capable of terminating polypeptide chain elongation in proteins

a) 1                              

b) 2                              

c) 3                              

d) 4

4. The prostaglandins :

a) Cause hypertension                                     

b) Occur only in prostatic tissue

c) Are alicyclic fatty acid derivatives             

d) Are synthesized from oleic acid

5. A hyperglyeemic factor produced by the pancreas is

a) FSH                         

b) Insulin                     

c) THyroxine               

d) Glucagon


6. Ferritin is found in

a) Liver                        

b) Kidney                    

c) Pancreas                  

d) Bone


7. The ingestion of which food stuff results in the greatest specific dynamic action

a) Fat                           

b) Carbohydrate          

c) Protein                     

d) Vitamin

8. Tetany due to hypoclacemia results from removal of the

a) Parathyroids            

b) Thyroids                  

c) Pituitary                  

d) Adrenals

9. The biological value of a protein depends upon

a) The digestibility alone                     

b) Digestibility and amino acid composition

c) Amino acid composition alone       

d) Digestibility and leucine content

10. The major path way for calcium excretion under normal condition is

a) Feces                       

b) Wseat                      

c) Urine                       

d) Milk

11. A negative nitrogen balance is observed

a) During normal pregnancy                           

b) During normal child growth

c) During convalescence                                 

d) In malnutrition

12. Oxidation of which substance yields the most calories per gram?

a) Glucose                     

b) Lipid                     

c) Animal Protein        

d) Glycogen

13. The normal pH of blood is

a) 7.4                               

b) 6.8                       

c) 7.7                           

d) 7.1

14. Which is not a part of the haemoglobin molecule?

a) Histidine                 

b) Protein                    

c) ferricion                   

d) Vinyl groups

15. Among the anti-coagulants normally present in an animal is

a) Dicuramol               

b) Heparin                   

c) Vitamin K               

d) Lipoprotein lipase

16. The naturally occurring porphyrins are

a) usually associated with a metal       b) usually associated with an uncharged metal ion

c) only found in animals                     d) usually chains of pyrrole rings

16. Normal life span of RBC is -

(a) 4 hours       (b) 4 months        (c) 4 years        (d) Immortal

17. Which one of the following animals do not have milk producing mammary glands-

(a) Bat           (b) Dolphins            (c) Platypus    (d) Sea Horse

 

18. A common feature of haemoglobin and chlorophyll is-

(a) They are porphyrin derivative

(b) They are oxygen carrier

(c) Both help in electron transport chain

(d) Both are proteins

 

19. AIDS virus attacks-

(a) T-helpers cells (b) B-cells

(c) Neutrophils (d) Lymphocytes

 

20. All living beings have self regulatory mechanism to maintain steady state and this is called as-

(a) Homeostasis      (b) Osmosis   (c) Phagocytosis    (d) Parabiosis

 

21. The ozone layer lies in-

(a) Troposphere    (b) Stratosphere

(c) Tropopause (d) Mesophere

22. Seasonal variation is due to-

(a) Rotation of earth

(b) Revolution of earth

(c) Inclination of earth on its axis

(d) Gravitational pull of moon

23. Main cause of earthquakes is disturbances in-

(a) Earth crust (b) upper mantle

(c) Lower mantle (d) Inner core

24. The planet having maximum density is-

(a) Mercury (b) Jupiter

(c) Pluto (d) Earth

25. Computers directly understand which language-

(a) Machine language (b) C

(c) Oracle (d) BASIC

26. Which among the following is not physical component of CPU-

(a) RAM (b) CU

(c) ALU (d) VDU

27. Binary equivalent of 15.5 is-

(a) 1111.101 (b) 1001.1

(c) 1111.1 (d) 1111.01

28. India's latest super computer is-

(a) Paran 1000 (b) Param 10000

(c) Param Padam (d) Param Infiniti

29. The difference between the GMT and place ‘A’ which is 82 ½ 0 E of GM line will be-

(a) + 3 ½ hours (b) – 3 ½ hours

(c) + 5 ½ hours (d) – 5 ½ hours

Model Test Paper – 2 435

30. What would be the output of the following program-

A=10 B= 20 I= 0

WHILE I < 5

I=I+1

A=A+2

B=B+2

STOP

PRINT A,B

(a) 18, 28 (b) 20, 30

(c) 22, 32 (d) 16, 26

PART – B

1. Which of the following organelle is involved in photorespiration-

(a) Peroxisomes (b) Ribosomes

(c) Glyoxysomes (d) Dictyosomes

2. In which phase of cell cycle the drug colchine exerts its effect-

(a) G1 (b) G2

(c) S (d) M

3. Seed storage protein of legumes are deficient in-

(a) Threonoine (b) Methionine

(c) Lysine (d) glycine

4. A hormone that controls closure of stomata in response to water stress is-

(a) Abscissic acid (b) Gibberlin

(c) Proline (d) Ethylene

5. The process by which a cell secrete macromolecules by fusing a transport vesicle to

plasma membrane is called

(a) Pinocytosis (b) Phagocytosis

(c) Endocytosis (d) Exocytosis

6. When a cell is expends energy to move a solute across its membrane against a

concentration gradient, the process is called as-

(a) Diffusion (b) Osmosis

(c) Facillitated Diffusion (d) Active transport

7. The CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is-

(a) 3-phosphoglyceric acid (b) Ribulose bis phosphate

(c) Phospho enol pyruvic acid (d) Xylulose 5 phosphate

8. Light harvesting complex II is located in the-

(a) Thylakoid lumen (b) Stroma

(c) Thylakoid membrane (d) Outer membrane of chloroplast

436 CSIR-NET Life Sciences

9. The maximum frequency of recombination of genes at two loci is-

(a) 25 % (b) 50 %

(c) 75 % (d) 100 %

10. Symbiotic association between fungi and roots of higher plant is known as-

(a) Mycorrhyiza (b) Lichen

(c) Collaroid (d) Epiphytic roots

11. A known uncoupler of electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation is-

(a) Dinitrophenol (b) Ancymidol

(c) Triaconotol (d) Hexaacamzol

12. Production of transgenic cotton resistant to lepidodenteron insect utilizing bacillus

thuringeneisis is due to-

(a) a-endotoxin (b) a-endotoxin

(c) a-exotoxin (d) d-exotoxin

13. A group of interconnected food chains is called as-

(a) Pyramid of number (b) Complex food chain

(c) Food web (d) Food cycle

14. Among the following phyla, one evolutionarily closest to phylum chordata is-

(a) Annelida (b) Arthopoda

(c) Echinodermata (d) Onchycophora

15. Human originated in epoch known as-

(a) Pleistocene (b) Pliocene

(c) Miocene (d) Holocene

16. The order Anura, Urodela, Apoda belongs the class-

(a) Amphibian (b) Reptilian

(c) Mammalian (d) Pisces

17. The condition albinism in man is linked to deficiency of the enzyme-

(a) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

(b) Arginase

(c) Tyrosinase

(d) Xanthin oxidase

18. Which among the following is not universal stop codon-

(a) UAA (b) UGA

(c) UAC (d) UAG

19. The body temperature of following groups of animals occurs in order-

(a) Protheria>metatheria>Eutheria>Aves

(b) Aves>Eutheria>Metatheria>Prototheria

(c) Eutheria>Aves>Metatheria>Prototheria

(d) Metatheria>Eutheria>Aves>Prototheria

Model Test Paper – 2 437

20. If you are asked to clone a man from a single cell and you are provided with the

following cells, which one would you will choose-

(a) Sperm (b) Erythrocyte

(c) Lymphocyte (d) Kidney fibroblast

21. The number of complementarity determining region(s) present in human kappa chain

are-

(a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 4

22. Transfer RNA genes are transcribed by-

(a) RNA polymerase I (b) RNA polymerase II

(c) RNA polymerase III (d) RNA dependent RNA pol

23. Shine-Dalgarno sequences are associated with-

(a) Transcription (b) Translation

(c) Replication (d) Recombination

24. Gonadotropin releasing factor is synthesized by-

(a) Anterior Pituatory (b) Hypothalamus

(c) Adrenal (d) Thymus

25. In Eukaryotic cell, DNA synthesis occurs during the phase of cell cycle-

(a) G1 Phase (b) G2 Phase

(c) S phase (d) M phase

26. The combination of closely related genetic markers which tends to transmitted as

unit to the next generation is called-

(a) Allotype (b) Haplotype

(c) Karyotype (d) Isotype

27. The hormone epinephrine is involved in-

(a) Red blood cell synthesis (b) Stress response

(c) Control of blood sugar level (d) Control of metabolic rate

28. The vector responsible for the spread of filiaris is-

(a) Anopheles (b) Culex

(c) Ades (d) Sand fly

29. The following of the four is not a secondary messanger-

(a) ATP (b) Inositol 1,4,5 triphosphate

(c) Ca++ (d) c-AMP

30. Early pregnancy dtection test detects the presence of whoch one of the following

hormone-

(a) Human chronic hormone (b) Lutenizing hormone

(c) Follicle stimulating hormone (d) Estrogen

438 CSIR-NET Life Sciences

31. Selective transfer of which of the following antibodies are responsible for passive

humoral immunity in infants-

(a) IgA (b) IgM

(c) IgG (d) IgE

32. The animal that most recently extinct from India is-

(a) Asiatic Lion (b) Dodo

(c) Asiatic Cheetah (d) Golden Langaur

33. Which of the following anti-tumor agent act by impairing the de novo purine synthesis-

(a) Cytosine arabinoside (b) 5-flurouracil

(c) Methotrexate (d) Hydroxyurea

34. Which one of the following has a quaternary structure-

(a) a-chymotrypsin (b) Haemoglobin

(c) Insulin (d) Myoglobin

35. Which one of the following is conservative substitution-

(a) Val to Ile (b) Asp to Pro

(c) Lys to Leu (d) Trp to Ala

36. Phospholipids are involved in all except one of the following-

(a) Cell to cell recognition

(b) Signal transduction

(c) Surfactant function in lungs

(d) Mediator of hypersensitivity

37. Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus is associated with-

(a) High level of insulin

(b) Severe weight gain

(c) Destruction of b-cells of pancreas

(d) Mutation of insulin

38. The Z-DNA helix -

(a) Has fewer base pair turn then B-DNA

(b) Is favoured by alternate GC base pairs

(c) Tends to found at 3'ends of genes

(d) Is the most common conformation of DNA

39. How many energy bonds are expended in formation of peptide bond-

(a) 2 (b) 4

(c) 3 (d) 6

40. Receptors for steroid hormones are found-

(a) On cell membrane (b) In cytoplasm

(c) In mitochondria (d) On ribosomes

Model Test Paper – 2 439

41. Endonuclease is an enzyme that hydrolyzes-

(a) A nucleotide at 3' ends of oligonucleotides

(b) A phosphodisester bond located in the interior of a polynucleotide

(c) A nucleotide from either termini of an oligonucleotide

(d) A peptide bond located in the interior of polypeptide

42. The Km of enzyme is-

(a) One half of the V max

(b) A dissociation constant

(c) Substrate concentration that gives max velocity

(d) Substrate concentration that gives half-maximum velocity

43. The class of immunoglobin most abundant in body secretion-

(a) Ig M (b) Ig G

(c) Ig A (d) Ig E

44. One of the following participates in phagocytic activity-

(a) Neutrophils (b) Mast cells

(c) T-Cells (d) Thrombocytes

45. Operons-

(a) Are approximately uniform in size

(b) Do not bind protein

(c) Are found in all eukaryotic genes

(d) Are Shorter in lower eukaryotes then higher ones

46. RNA is very susceptible to hydrolysis in alkali because-

(a) It contains uracil in its structure

(b) Its 2'-OH group participates in intramolecular cleavage of phosphodiester

backbone

(c) Cleavage occurs in the glycosylic bonds of purine bases

(d) Cleavage occurs in the glycosylic bonds of pyramidine bases

47. T4 polynucleotide kinase is used for-

(a) Labeling 3' ends of DNA

(b) Labeling 5' ends of DNA

(c) Creating blunt ends of DNA

(d) Dephosphorylation of DNA

48. A plasmid cloning vector should contain all of the following except-

(a) Origin of replication (b) Inducible promoter

(c) Selectable marker gene (d) Multiple cloning sites

49. Enzymes used in “cycle sequencing” of DNA is-

(a) T7 DNA polymerase (b) T4 DNA polymerase

(c) Klenow DNA polymerase (d) Taq DNA polymerase

440 CSIR-NET Life Sciences

50. Viral replication within cells is inhibited by-

(a) IL-4 (b) IL-1

(c) IFN-a (d) TNF-a

51. Holoandric inheritance is shown by-

(a) X-chromosomes (b) Y-chromosomes

(c) Autosomes (d) Allosomes

52. Lesch-Nyann Syndrome is due to defect in-

(a) Recessive X-chromosomes (b) Dominant X-chromosome

(c) Autosomes (d) Y-chromosomes

53. Selection of African tribes is more of heterozygous gene for RBC is due to-

(a) Severe malaria (b) Environment unstability

(c) More cases of Sickle cell anemia

(d) both a&c

54. Molecular clock of evolution could be traced on basis of-

(a) Comparison of Short arm of 16-S RNA

(b) Substitution in amoniacids of polypeptide due to mutation

(c) DNA fingerprinting

(d) Fossil study

55. Phylogenetic relationship can be more precisely established by comparing-

(a) Amino acid sequence (b) DNA

(c) r-RNA (d) m-RNA

56. The Typical Medelian dihybrid test cross ratio is-

(a) 9:3:3:1 (b) 1:1:1:1

(c) 9:7 (d) 1:2:1

57. Extra nuclear genetic material is present in-

(a) Ribosome (b) Centriole

(c) Plastids (d) Golgi

58. Dosage compensation in human is achieved by-

(a) Methylation (b) Acetylation

(c) Hyperactivation (d) Silencing

59. Energy obtained by oxidation of 1 g of protein is -

(a) 9 K cal (b) 4.5 K cal

(c) 18 K cal (d) 12 K cal

60. Among the following the progenitors of mammals were-

(a) Aves (b) Pisces

(c) Amphibians (d) Reptiles

Model Test Paper – 2 441

61. Abrupt change in gene frequency in isolated population is termed as-

(a) Adaptive radiation (b) Allopatric speciation

(c) Random drift (d) Mutation

62. Main cause of loss of Biodiversity is-

(a) Pollution (b) Population explosion

(c) Habitat destruction (d) Over exploitation

63. Which radioisotope is used for estimating age of rocks-

(a) U238 & K40 (b) U235 & C14

(c) U238 & H3 (d) C14 & H3

64. What is main cause of evolution of new species-

(a) Natural selection (b) Competition

(c) Mutation (d) Hybridization

65. Competitive exclusion principle operates in-

(a) Distantly related species (b) Closely related sps.

(c) Species in overlapping niche (d) Shortage of nutrition

66. The new type designated when original type is missing-

(a) Co-type (b) Syntype

(c) Neotype (d) Lectotype

67. Inversion when chromosomes are not involved is termed as-

(a) Pericentric (b) Paracentric

(c) Allocentric (d) Autocentric

68. In a sample from an African population, the frequency of LM and LN alleles were

0.78 and 0.22 resp. What are expected frequency of MN phenotypes-

(a) 0.8 (b) 0.02

(c) 0.34 (d) 0.016

69. Ozone layer is severely depleted at-

(a) Equator (b) Tropics

(c) Poles (d) Temperate

70. The anionic charge of phosphodiester bond of DNA in prokaryotes is balanced by-

(a) Polyamines (b) H-NS

(c) H-L (d) Histone

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