MCQ BIOLOGY PRACTICE SET 15.04.2021

 41. Which of the following is responsible for peat formation?

(a) Marchantia 

(b) Sphagnum 

(c) Funaria 

(d) Riccia

42. Apomixis is a special mechanism to produce seeds without fertilisation. Choose the correct statement regarding apomixis.

I. It is a form of asexual reproduction which does not involve syngamy and meiosis.

II. Adventive embryony is a type of apomixis when one or more embryos are formed.

III. Embryo develops from the separate embryo sacs present in the same ovule.

(a) Only I 

(b) II and III 

(c) Only II 

(d) I and II

43. Synthesis of one molecule of glucose requires

(a) 6 CO2, 18 ATP and 12 NADPH

(b) 6 CO2, 12 ATP and 18 NADPH

(c) 6 CO2; 30 ATP and 12 NADPH

(d) 6 CO2, 38 ATP and 12 NADPH

44. Match the following and choose the correct code.

         List I                                                                       List II

A. One gene-one polypeptide                              1. Crick

B. Genetic code was discovered by                     2. Temin and Baltimore

C. Reverse transcription                                       3. Beadle and Tatum

D. Semiconservative DNA replication                4. Meselson and Stahl

Codes

      A   B   C     D 

(a) 2     3    1    4 

(b) 3     1    4    2

(c) 1     3    2    4 

(d) 3    1     2    4

45. Select the taxon mentioned that represents both marine and freshwater species

(a) Ctenophora 

(b) Echinodermata

(c) Cephalochordata 

(d) Cnidaria

46. Consider the following statements.

I. High amount of Escherichia coli in water is an indicator of sewage or faecal pollution.

II. Bhopal gas tragedy of 1984 took place because methyl isocyanate reacted with air.

III. Chipko movement was initially meant for protecting trees, but now it is meant for

preservation of environment including habitat and wildlife.

Which of the statement given above are correct?

(a) I and II 

(b) I and III 

(c) II and III 

(d) I, II and III

47. Antrum is cavity of

(a) ovary 

(b) Graafian follicle 

(c) blastula 

(d) gastrula

48. An aggregate fruit is one which develops from

(a) multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium

(b) multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium

(c) complete inflorescence

(d) multicarpellary superior ovary

49. Choose the correct statement from the following and

select the correct code.

I. Naked DNA is acidic.

II. DNA is double stranded left handed helical structure.

III. Guanosine is a nucleotide.

IV. Two nucleotides are linked in 3¢® 5¢ to form dinucleotide.

Codes

(a) I and II 

(b) I and IV 

(c) I, II, III and IV 

(d) I, III and IV

50. How parasympathetic neural signal is associated with heart?

(a) Both heart rate and cardiac output increases

(b) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases

(c) Reduces both heart rate and cardiac output

(d) Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output

51. A health disorder myxoedema that results from the deficiency of thyroxine in adults leads to

I. A low metabolic rate.

II. Increase in body weight.

III. Tendency to retain water in tissues.

IV. Rise in body temperature.

Choose the correct code.

(a) I and IV 

(b) IV only

(c) II and IV 

(d) I, II, III and IV

52. Which of the following is an example of sex-linked disease?

(a) Colour blindness 

(b) AIDS

(c) Syphilis 

(d) Gonorrhoea

53. Which of the following is an analogous structure?

(a) Wings of bat and wings of pigeon

(b) Gills of prawn and lungs of man

(c) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita

(d) Flippers of dolphin and legs of horse

54. Consider the following features about climax community.

I. Rapidly keeps on changing to reach equilibrium

II. Final community

III. End of succession

IV. Stable

Choose the correct set of features from the options given below.

(a) I and II 

(b) II, III and IV

(c) I and III 

(d) I, II, III and IV

55. World Conservation Union is the another name of

(a) UNEP 

(b) IUCN

(c) UNESCO 

(d) ICFRE

56. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing project are

(a) Expression vectors 

(b) T-DNA

(c) BAC and YAC 

(d) T/A cloning vectors

57. Which of the following technique is not involved in southern hybridisation for the analysis of chromosomal DNA?

(a) Autoradiography 

(b) Electrophoresis

(c) Blotting 

(d) PCR

58. Function of filiform apparatus is to

(a) recognise the suitable pollen at stigma

(b) stimulate division of generative cell

(c) produce nectar

(d) guide the entry of pollen tube

59. A human female with Turner’s syndrome

(a) has 45 chromosomes with XO

(b) has one additional X-chromosome

(c) exhibits male characters

(d) is able to produce children with normal husband

60. Photosynthetic bacteria have

(a) pigment system-I

(b) pigment system-II

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Some other kind of pigments P890

61. Taxonomic hierarchy was introduced by

(a) Ernst Mayer 

(b) Linnaeus

(c) Aristotle 

(d) RH Whittaker

62. Yellow corpus luteum occurs in a mammal in

(a) heart to initiate heartbeat

(b) skin to function as pain receptor

(c) brain and connects cerebral hemisphere

(d) ovary for secretion of progesterone

63. Cry II Ab and Cry I Ab produce toxins that control

(a) cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively

(b) corn borer and cotton bollworms respectively

(c) tobacco budworm and nematode respectively

(d) nematodes and tobacco budworms respectively

64. The first recombinant DNA was constructed by

(a) Paul Berg

(b) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer

(c) Har Gobind Khorana

(d) James D Wateson

65. Ischihara chart is used to detect

(a) tuberculosis 

(b) eye sight

(c) colour blindness 

(d) diabetes

66. Small RNA includes 

(a) si-RNA

(b) mi-RNA

(c) Piwi RNA

(d)  All of these

67. The element required for the activation of DNA and

RNA is

(a) Ca 2+ 

(b) Cu2+ 

(c) Mg2+ 

(d) K+

68. Correct sequence of hormone secretion from beginning of menstruation is

(a) FSH, progesterone, oestrogen

(b) oestrogen, FSH, progesterone

(c) FSH, oestrogen, progesterone

(d) oestrogen, progesterone, FSH

69. Which of the following is wrongly matched?

(a) Transcription – writing information from DNA to t-RNA

(b) Translation – using information in mRNA to make protein

(c) Repressor protein – binds to operator to stop enzyme synthesis

(d) Operon – structural genes, operator and promoter

70. Which enzymes will be produced in a cell in which there is a non-sense mu ta tion in the lac y gene?

(a) b-galactosidase

(b) Transacetylase

(c) Lactose permease

(d) Lactose permease and transacetylase

71. Which of the following is a character is tic feature of dinoflagellates?

(a) They are golden-brown coloured

(b) They are motile and unicellular

(c) Have bioluminescence

(d) All of the above

72. Placenta and pericarp are both edible portion in

(a) apple 

(b) banana

(c) tomato 

(d) potato

73. DNA fingerprinting is used for the detection of criminals, paternity test, etc. What is the basis of DNA fingerprinting?

(a) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprint

(b) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments

(c) The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA

(d) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in the blood, skin and saliva

74. Which one of the following is not associated with salinity stress?

(a) Osmotic stress

(b) Ionic stress

(c) Somatic Mutation 

(d) More than one option correct

75. If 6n is the number of genotypes, where ‘n’ is the number of different chromosome pairs with each carrying one heterozygous alleles, what would be the different genotypes produced by garden pea plant?

(a) 614 

(b) 612

(c) 67 

(d) 610

Hint Pea plant have 7 pairs of contrasting character

76. In the absence of fertilization, corpus luteum

(a) stops secreting progesterone

(b) changes to corpus albicans

(c) starts producing progesterone

(d) starts producing hCG

77. Arrange the following option in ascending order of their BOD value.

I. Sample of highly polluted pond water.

II. Sample from unpolluted pond water.

III. Distilled water.

(a) III, I, II 

(b) II, III, I

(c) III, II, I 

(d) I, III, II

78. Con sider the state ment given be low and choose the

correct code.

I. Recessive trait can only be expressed in homozygous condition.

II. Recessive trait can only be expressed in heterozygous condition.

III. Dominant trait is expressed in homozygous condition.

IV. Dominant trait cannot be expressed in heterozygous conditions.

Codes

(a) I, II and III 

(b) Only I

(c) II and IV 

(d) II, III and IV

79. Devonian period of Palaeozoic era is popularly known as

(a) age of invertebrates

(b) age of fishes

(c) age of amphibians

(d) age of terrestrial land plants

80. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually shows symp toms of AIDS?

(a) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person

(b) When the infected retrovirus enters host cells

(c) When HIV damages large number of helper T-lymphocytes

(d) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase

81. Which of the following statement is not true about Schwann cells?

I. Surround axon of myelinated nerve fibre.

II. Support muscle fibres.

III. Found in Haversian system of bones.

IV. Form base ment mem brane of ep i the lium.

Choose the correct code from the codes given below.

(a) Only I

(b) I, II and IV

(c) II, III and IV

(d) I, II, III and IV

82. In an accident a person’s hypothalamus region is injured. What would most likely disrupt

(a) short term memory

(b) executive function such as decision making

(c) regulation of body temperature

(d) coordination during locomotion

83. Which of the following is true about phenylketonuria (PKU)?

(a) They lack phenylalanine hydroxylase to change phenylalanine to tyrosine

(b) Accumulation of phenylalanine and its metabolites damage the brain and causes the disease

(c) The heterozygous individual is normal but carrier

(d) All of these

84. A few nor mal seed lings of tomato were kept in a darkroom. After a few days, they were found to have become white-coloured like albinos. Which of the following terms will you use to de scribe them?

(a) Mutated 

(b) Embolised

(c) Etiolated 

(d) Defoliated

85. Which of the follow ing is not true about aves?

I. Birds are uricotelic with mesonephric kidney.

II. Bones are pneumatic and bone marrow present.

III. Skin is dry without glands except oil gland or green glands.

IV. Fertilization is internal and are viviparous.

(a) I and II 

(b) I, II and IV 

(c) II and IV 

(d) I, III and IV

86. Match the following columns.

Column I                                       Column II

A. Porogamy                              1. Pollen tube enters by piercing the integument.

B. Chalazogamy                         2. Pollen tube enters through  micropylar end.

C. Mesogamy                              3. Pollen tube enters through chalazal end.

Codes

     A   B   C 

(a) 2   3    1 

(b) 1   2    3

(c) 3   2    1 

(d) 1  3    2

87. A man whose father was colourblind marries a woman, who had a colourblind mother and normal father. What percent age of male children of this couple will be colour blind?

(a) 100% 

(b) 75% 

(c) 50% 

(d) 25%

88. If Mendel had studied the seven traits using a plant with 12 chromosomes in stead of 14, in what way would his inter pretation have been different?

(a) He could have mapped the chromosomes

(b) He would have discovered blending or incomplete dominance

(c) He would not have discovered the law of independent assortment

(d) He would have discovered sex linkage

89. Which one of the following statement is correct?

(a) The seed in grasses is not endospermic

(b) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit

(c) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain

(d) A sterile pistil is called a staminode

90. Sacred groove is one of the great aspect of in situ conservation. It is useful in

(a) year round flow of water in rivers

(b) conserving rare and threatened species

(c) generating environmental awareness

(d) preventing soil erosion

ANSWER:

41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (c)

51. (d) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (d)

61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (a) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (a)

71. (d) 72. (c) 73. (b) 74. (a) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (b) 80. (c)

81. (c) 82. (c) 83. (d) 84. (c) 85. (c) 86. (a) 87. (d) 88. (c) 89. (c) 90. (b