BIOTECHNOLOGY MCQ

 

1. In which of the following cases, the enzyme substrate complex is irreversible in nature?

(a) Competetive inhibition 

(b) Non competitive inhibition

(c) Un competitive inhibition 

(d) Both a and b

2) A set of closely related genes or genetic markers that are inherited as a single unit is

(a) Cistron 

(b) Gene families 

(c) Haplotype 

(d) Haploid

3) Which of the following stages of embryos is used for transfer into cows?

(a) Mid morula

(b) Late morula stage

(c) Very early morula stage 

(d) Blastocyst stage

4) Balanced genetic polymorphism occurs when there is selection against

(a) heterozygotes 

(b) all genotypes

(c) all homozygotes 

(d) only homozygotes recessive

5) The mouse model for type II diabetes mellitus is

(a) NZB mouse 

(b) SCID mouse 

(c) Nude mouse 

(d) NOD mouse

6) Xth nerve is an example of

(a) mixed cranial nerve

(b) sensory cranial nerve

(c) spinal nerve

(d) motor nerve

7) The symbiotic bacteria responsible for producing bioluminescense is

(a) Vibrio cholera

(b) Pseudomonas putida

(c) Vibrio fischeri

(d) Chromobacteruim sp.

8) Which among the following viruses is known for its antigenic variation?

(a) Rabies 

(b) Influenza 

(c) Yellow feve 

(d) Japannese encephalitis

9) A mapping method for identifying markers linked to a trait of our interest in a natural population is called

(a) linkage mapping

(b) association mapping

(c) transcriptome mapping 

(d) RFLP mapping

10) An X-linked recessive disorder is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and the incidence in males is 1 in 100, then the expected incidence of affected homologous females would be

(a) 1 in 1000 

(b) 1 in 4000 

(c) 1 in 10,000 

(d) 1 in 40,000

11) Homology modeling can be used to predict the 3D structure of only

(a) paralogs 

(b) orthologs 

(c) xenologs 

(d) homologs

12) In an antigen-antibody interaction study Surface Plasmon Resonance technique, it was observed that the antigen concentration was 9 times the dissociation constant, Kd. The percentage of the antibody in the bound from would be

(a) 10%

(b) 90% 

(c) 99%

(d) 100%

13) The Philadelphia chromosome is

(a) an example of gene amplification

(b) a product of a reciprocal translocation

(c) a characteristic of Burkitt's lymphoma

(d) an example of duplication

14) Independently folded functional unit of a protein is called a

(a) motif

(b) fold 

(c) domain 

(d) module

15) In a Robertsonian translocation fusion occurs at the

(a)telomeres 

(b)centromeres 

(c)end of short arms 

(d)end of long arms

16) For extraction of Penicillin fusion occurs at the

(a) more ionization of penicillin is required for extraction

(b) less ionization of penicillin

(c) pH is decreased to reduce the contamination

(d) pH is decreased to precipitate the antibiotic

17) In Ramachandran plot, the values of the dihedral angel y (psi) is based on rotation around

(a) N-Ca bond 

(b) Ca-C' bond 

(c) C'-N bond 

(d) N-H bond

18) P-value/E-value provided by sequence similarity search algorithms is a

(a) measure of similarity 

(b) parameter to distinguish true relationships

(c) measure of distance 

(d) measure of % homology

19) Which one of the following methods helps to analyse energy architecture of proteins using 3D structure and thereby evaluating the quality of protein structure?

(a) Prosall 

(b) Procheck 

(c) Ramachandran plot 

(d) Phyre

20) Restriction enzymes produced by E. coli, do not out self DNA because cells are

(a) Rec A

(b) Dam+

(c)RoeA 

(d) Dam

21) Which of the following bacteria is not naturally competent?

(a) Bacillus subrilis

(b) E. coli

(c) Smepiececcus pneumonia

(d) Hemoplilus influenta

22) The enzyme used in Solid sequencing technology is

(a)sequenase 

(b)DNA polymerase 

(c) DNA Ligase 

(d) Taq Polymerase

23) NicePort is

(a) Protein sequence database 

(b) Derived Protein database

(e) Protein sequence view 

(d) Nucleotide sequence view

24) The stability of a recombinant protein can be enhanced by

(a) alerting the C-terminal region of the protein

(b) exclusion of PEST sequence from the protein

(c) production of compound similar to detergents tp prevent formation of inclusion bodies

(d) altering the N-terminal by adding leucine or phenyl alanine by genetic manipulation

25) Which of the following RNAs function by seed pairing?

(a) mRNA 

(b) tRNA 

(c) rRNA 

(d) miRNA

26) Which of the following does not participate in the formation of antigen-antibody/ligand-receptor complexes?

(a) Hydrophobic bonds

(b) Covalent bonds

(c) Electrostatic interactions 

(d) Hydrogen bonds

27) Which of the following features is not found in heterogeneous nuclear RNAs (hn RNAs)?

(a) intron

(b) polycistronic coding

(c) polyadenylation at 3'-end 

(d) 5'- cap structure

28) PRINTS database contains

(a) Single motifs

(b) Multiple motifs

(C) Single domains 

(d) Multiple domains

29) Which of the following conditions does not favour denaturation of double-stranded DNA?

(a) heating to 100 degrees Celsius

(b) adding high concentration of sodium chloride

(c) decrease the ionic strength of the solution

(d) treatment with alkali to raise the pH to 10

30) The average length attained by a chromosome varies from

(a) 30 to 1000 nm

(b) 0.5 to 30 um

(c) 30 um to 1 mm

(d) 1mm to 10 mm

31) The cytological representation of Klinefelter syndrome is

(a) 44A + XO

(b) 44A + XXO

(c) 44A + XXY

(d) 43A + XYY

32) Which of the following can induce polypoidy?

(a) Cytochalasin 

(b) Colchicine 

(c) Quinine 

(d) Hydrazin

33) Deoxy position of deoxyribose in DNA is at

(a) 1st Carbon

(b) 3rd Carbon 

(c) 2nd Carbon 

(d) 5th Carbon

81)E. coli with mutation in operator region of lac operon and containing supressors will

(a) produce B-galactosidase even when lactose is absent

(b) produce B-galactosidase only in the presence of lactose

(c) will not produce B-galactosidase even in the presence of lactose

(d) will produce B-galactosedase even in the presence of glucose

34) Which of the following non-coding RNAs involved in RNA editing?

(a) Sn RNA 

(b) Si RNA 

(c)gRNA 

(d) Mi RNA

35)The linear and circular forms of the same DNA molecule can de distinguished using

(a) Adsorbance at 260 nm

(b) Endonuclease digestion

(c) Viscosity of the solution 

(d) Exonuclease digestion

36)Protein-protein interaction can be evaluated by all of the following except

(a) Far-Western blotting

(b) Chromatin immunoprecipitation

(c) Yeast-two hybrid system

(d) Co-immunoprecipitation

(37) In an experimental condition, in vitro translation of repeating sequence of CAA produced three polypeptides, polyglutamine, polyasperaginc and polythreonine. If the codon for glutamine and threonine are CAA and ACA respectively, what will be the codon for asparagines?

(a) AAC 

(b)CAC 

(c) CCA 

(d) ACC

38) Which one of the following statements about prion proteins is incorrect?

(a) Prion proteins form cross beta filaments

(b) Prion proteins are heat resistant

(c)Prion proteins are protease sensitive

(d) Prion proteins convert the normally folded prion proteins to pathological form

(39) RT-PCR reaction sequentially uses

(a) RNA dependent DNA polymerase and DNA dependent DNA polymerase

(b) RNA dependent DNA polymerase and DNA polymerase I

(c) RNA polymerase and DNA dependent DNA polymerase

(d) RNA polymerase and DNA polymerase I

(40) Which of the following directly reverse DNA damage?

(a) AP endonuclease

(b) UV-ABC

(c) Muts and Muth

(d) Methyltransferase

(41) When DNA molecules from a complex genome are denatured and then returned to conditions that favour duplex formation, the strands reanneal. Which of the following statements about the renaturation is incorrect?

(a) strands with the same overall A+T composition will anneal in the fastest category

(b) the slowly annealing fraction contains most of the genes

(c) only strands with complementary base sequences will anneal stably

(d) strands derived from highly repeated sequences anneal rapidly because the rate of the reaction is concentration dependent

(42) If you were to use E. coli DNA polymerase instead of Tag Polymerase in a classical PCR-reaction, you will have to

(a) add fresh enzyme after each denaturation step

(b) carry out denaturation step at 50°C instead of 95 °C

(c) use different primers

(d) use water bath instead of thermal block

(43) A BLAST hit with STS division of GenBank helps you to understand

(a) only location of the sequence in the genome

(b) only expression of the sequence

(c) both location and expression of the sequence

(d) first pass survey sequences

(44) In PET expression vectors, high level of expression of cloned gene is achieved using

(a) T7 promoter 

(b)SP6 promoter 

(c)2-PL promoter 

(d)Trp promoter

(45) Which of the following techniques can be used to determine the alpha-amylase gene polymorphism?

(a) Southern blot 

(b) Slot blot 

(c) Dot blot 

(d) Northern blot

(46) Which of the following transgenic crops occupies the largest area in the world?

(a) Herbicide tolerant soybean 

(b) Herbicide tolerant maize

(c) Insect resistant cotton

(d) Insect resistant potato

(47) In order to develop iron-rich which of the following genes was used for creating genetically modified plants?

(a) Ferritin

(b) Phytic acid and Ferritin

(c) Phytic acid

(d) Transferritin and Ferritin

(48) Viable seeds can be produced without fertilization of the egg in a process..

(a) Apospory 

(b) Apomixis 

(c) Parthenogenesis 

(d) Meiosis

(49) Which of the following genes in Arabidopsis mediates interactions between floral meristem and floral organ indentity genes?

(a) SRE 

(b) MADS box 

(C) UFO 

(d) AP2

(50) LEAs are classified as

(a) shoot development proteins 

(b) seed storage proteins

(c) mutant derived proteins 

(d) leaf development proteins